Understand the binomial distribution the easy way, with plain English intuition, Bernoulli trials, the binomial formula, mean np and variance np(1 minus p), worked examples and an auto marked practice test. VCE Maths Methods Units 3 and 4.
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Imagine flipping a coin ten times and asking “what are the chances I get exactly
seven heads?” You could list every possible sequence of heads and tails, but that is
hundreds of lines of work. The binomial distribution is the shortcut. It is a single
formula that answers “how many successes out of a fixed number of tries” for any
situation built from the same repeated yes or no event. Learn the four conditions and
one formula, and a whole family of exam questions opens up.
The binomial distribution for 5 fair coin tosses. Each dot is the probability of getting that many heads, from 0 to 5; the shape is symmetric because heads and tails are equally likely.
Where it all starts: a Bernoulli trial
Before the binomial, meet its building block. A Bernoulli trial is the simplest
random experiment there is. One go, exactly two outcomes, which we label success and
failure. A coin flip, a single free throw, one screen coming off a production line. We
give success a probability p, so failure has probability 1−p. That is the entire
idea.
The binomial distribution is just what happens when you repeat the same Bernoulli
trial a fixed number of times and count the successes. Four conditions have to hold,
and exam questions are quietly testing whether you noticed them.
A fixed number of trials n, decided before you start.
Each trial is a Bernoulli trial with only two outcomes.
The success probability p is the same every trial.
The trials are independent, so one result never changes the next.
When all four hold we write X∼Bi(n,p), where X counts the successes.
The formula that counts the ways
Say you want exactly k successes out of n trials. Each specific sequence with k
successes and n−k failures has probability pk(1−p)n−k, because the trials are
independent so you just multiply. But there is more than one sequence that gives k
successes. The successes could land in many different positions.
That is what the (kn) does. It counts how many orderings give k successes,
and we add a copy of pk(1−p)n−k for each one.
Pr(X=k)=(kn)pk(1−p)n−k
Read it as three pieces multiplied together. The (kn) counts the orderings,
the pk is the successes, and the (1−p)n−k is the failures. The two powers
always add up to n, which is a quick way to catch a slip.
Two shortcuts you must not confuse
Once a question gets large, listing cases is hopeless, so two formulas do the heavy
lifting. For X∼Bi(n,p) the centre and the spread are:
E(X)=npVar(X)=np(1−p)
The meannp is where the count sits on average. Toss a fair coin 100 times and
you expect 100×0.5=50 heads, which matches your gut.
The variancenp(1−p) measures how much the count bounces around. Here is the trap
that costs marks in real exams every single year. Many questions ask for the standard
deviation, which is the square root of the variance.
sd(X)=np(1−p)
If a question says standard deviation, finding the variance is only half the job. You
must take the square root at the end. Examiner reports list this exact slip, students
who stop at np(1−p) when the question wanted np(1−p).
The complement trick for “at least”
Watch for the phrase “at least one”. Computing Pr(X=1)+Pr(X=2)+⋯ all the
way up is slow and error prone. Instead flip it around. “At least one” is everything
except “none”, so
Pr(X≥1)=1−Pr(X=0)
and Pr(X=0) is a single, easy term. One subtraction replaces a long sum. The same
move handles “at least two” by subtracting Pr(X=0) and Pr(X=1).
Lock it in with active recall
Cover the answer and say each one out loud before you flip. Rate yourself honestly — the cards you find hard come back sooner, the ones you know are spaced further out.
Active recall
Answer from memory first, then flip. Rate yourself and each card returns on a spaced schedule (1 → 3 → 7 → 16 days).
What are the four conditions for a binomial distribution?
A fixed number of trials n, two outcomes per trial, a constant success probability p, and independent trials. Then X∼Bi(n,p).
Write the binomial probability formula and name its three pieces.
Pr(X=k)=(kn)pk(1−p)n−k — (kn) counts the orderings, pk the successes, (1−p)n−k the failures.
For X∼Bi(n,p), give the mean, variance and standard deviation.
E(X)=np, Var(X)=np(1−p), and sd(X)=np(1−p).
How do you find Pr(X≥1) quickly (the “at least one” trick)?
Use the complement: Pr(X≥1)=1−Pr(X=0), a single easy term instead of a long sum.
In (kn)pk(1−p)n−k, what must the two powers always add up to?
The success power k and the failure power n−k always add to n — a fast way to catch a slip.
Recall · Discrete random variables
How do you get the standard deviation from a variance, and what is the classic slip?
sd(X)=Var(X). The classic slip is stopping at the variance when the question wanted the standard deviation.
Recall · The normal distribution
A binomial with large n is approximated by which distribution, and with what parameters?
The normal distribution, with mean np and standard deviation np(1−p).
See these ideas in action in the Worked Examples tab, then test yourself in
Try It.
Worked examples
Worked Example 1A show-that with binomial probabilities, from a real exam
Let X∼Bi(4,p) be a binomial random variable. Show that Pr(X≥3)=g(p) for all p∈[0,1], where g(p)=4p3−3p4.
1
'At least three' out of four means X=3 or X=4. Add the two binomial probabilities, taking care to include both terms.
Pr(X≥3)=(34)p3(1−p)+(44)p4
2
Evaluate the coefficients (34)=4 and (44)=1, then expand and collect like terms.
4p3(1−p)+p4=4p3−4p4+p4=4p3−3p4=g(p)
3
As a 'show that', full working is required. The examiner report notes some students computed Pr(X≤3) or omitted the X=4 term entirely.
Pr(X≥3)=4p3−3p4=g(p)
Answer
Pr(X≥3)=(34)p3(1−p)+(44)p4=4p3−3p4=g(p)
VCAA 2025 Mathematical Methods Exam 2, Section B Q1f
Worked Example 2A cumulative probability as an exact fraction, from a real exam
Let X∼Bi(4,109). Find Pr(X<2).
1
Pr(X<2) means X=0 or X=1. Write each term with the binomial formula, keeping the success power and failure power matched.
Pr(X=0)=(101)4,Pr(X=1)=(14)(109)(101)3
2
Evaluate each term over the common denominator 104=10000.
Pr(X=0)=100001,Pr(X=1)=1000036
3
Add the two terms. The examiner report notes some students mishandled the decimal or fraction expansion (an extra or missing zero) or gave only the Pr(X=1) term.
Pr(X<2)=100001+1000036=1000037
Answer
Pr(X<2)=1000037
VCAA 2024 Mathematical Methods Exam 1, Q4b
Worked Example 3A single exact probability
A basketball player has a 0.85 chance of sinking each free throw, and each throw is independent. She takes 8 throws. Find the probability that she sinks exactly 6 of them, correct to four decimal places.
1
This is binomial. There are n=8 fixed trials, two outcomes each (sink or miss), a constant success chance p=0.85, and the throws are independent. We want exactly k=6 successes.
X∼Bi(8,0.85)
2
Write the binomial formula. The (68) counts the different orders in which the 6 successes could land among the 8 throws.
Pr(X=6)=(68)(0.85)6(0.15)2
3
Evaluate. Keep the success power and the failure power matched to 6 and 2, never the other way around.
Pr(X=6)=28×(0.85)6×(0.15)2
Answer
Pr(X=6)=0.2376
Worked Example 4Mean, variance and standard deviation
A factory line produces phone screens, and each screen independently has a 0.2 chance of a tiny scratch. A box holds 12 screens. Find the mean, the variance and the standard deviation of the number of scratched screens in a box.
1
Set it up as binomial with n=12 and p=0.2.
X∼Bi(12,0.2)
2
The mean of a binomial is np. On average, a box has this many scratched screens.
E(X)=np=12×0.2=2.4
3
The variance is np(1−p). This measures spread, not a typical count.
Var(X)=np(1−p)=12×0.2×0.8=1.92
4
The standard deviation is the square root of the variance. This is the step students most often forget.
sd(X)=1.92
Answer
E(X)=2.4,Var(X)=1.92,sd(X)=1.3856
Worked Example 5At least one, using the complement
A seed company says each seed germinates independently with probability 0.97. A gardener plants 5 seeds. Find the probability that at least one seed fails to germinate, correct to four decimal places.
1
Let X be the number that fail. A failure has probability 1−0.97=0.03, so X∼Bi(5,0.03). 'At least one' means X≥1, which is everything except zero.
Pr(X≥1)=1−Pr(X=0)
2
Find Pr(X=0) first. With zero failures, all five must germinate.
Pr(X=0)=(05)(0.03)0(0.97)5=(0.97)5
3
Subtract from one. Going through the complement is far quicker than adding up the cases for X=1,2,3,4,5.
Pr(X≥1)=1−(0.97)5
Answer
Pr(X≥1)=0.1413
Practice questions
Practice test
Try it yourself
9 questions, 12 marks
Choose your answers, then submit to see your score and the full worked solutions.
Multiple choice is marked for you, just like Exam 2 Section A.
Q1.A fair six-sided die is repeatedly rolled. What is the minimum number of rolls required so that the probability of rolling a six at least once is greater than 0.95?
1mark
Show worked solution
The probability of no six in n rolls is (65)n, so 'at least one six' is the complement: we need 1−(65)n>0.95, i.e. (65)n<0.05. Taking logarithms, n>ln(5/6)ln0.05≈16.43, so the minimum integer is n=17.
VCAA 2024 Mathematical Methods Exam 2, Section A Q7
Q2.A box contains n green balls and m red balls. A ball is selected at random, its colour noted, then replaced. In 8 such selections, where n=m, the probability that a green ball is selected at least once is:
1mark
Show worked solution
Because the ball is replaced, the trials are independent with Pr(green)=n+mn and Pr(red)=n+mm. Use the complement: Pr(at least one green)=1−Pr(all red)=1−(n+mm)8.
A common slip is to put n+mn inside the complement instead of the red proportion.
VCAA 2023 Mathematical Methods Exam 2, Section A Q8
Q3.Consider the binomial random variable X∼Bi(6,41). Determine Pr(X≥5). Give your answer in the form 2ba, where a,b∈Z.
2marks
Work this on paper. The worked solution appears once you submit.
Adding the two terms, Pr(X≥5)=409618+40961=409619, and since 4096=212,
Pr(X≥5)=21219.
The examiner report notes many students could not reduce 4096 to 212, and some evaluated only one of the two terms.
VCAA 2025 Mathematical Methods Exam 1, Q6b
Q4.A spinner lands on red with probability 31 on each independent spin. It is spun 6 times. The probability of getting red exactly twice is:
1mark
Need a hint?
Use (kn)pk(1−p)n−k with n=6, k=2. The success and failure powers must add to 6.
Show worked solution
With n=6, p=31 and k=2, the formula is (26)(31)2(32)4=15×91×8116=729240.
Option D drops the (26) coefficient that counts the orderings. Option A swaps the powers, using the success power 4 and the failure power 2 instead of 2 and 4. Option B uses the wrong failure power. The success power and the failure power must add to n=6.
Q5.A quiz has 20 multiple choice questions. A student guesses each one, with probability 0.15 of guessing correctly. If X is the number of correct guesses, then E(X) equals:
1mark
Need a hint?
The mean of a binomial is np, not the variance and not just p.
Show worked solution
The mean of a binomial is E(X)=np=20×0.15=3.
Option A is the variance np(1−p)=20×0.15×0.85=2.55, a common confusion between mean and spread. Option C is n(1−p), the expected number of wrong guesses. Option B is just p.
Q6.A biased coin lands heads with probability 0.4. It is tossed 50 times. The variance of the number of heads is:
1mark
Need a hint?
Variance is np(1−p). Do not take a square root, and do not stop at np.
Show worked solution
The variance of a binomial is np(1−p)=50×0.4×0.6=12.
Option A is the mean np=20, not the variance. Option B is the standard deviation 12, which is what you would take a square root to get, not the variance itself. Option D uses n(1−p) by mistake.
Q7.In a large batch, each item is independently faulty with probability 0.2. A sample of 100 items is taken. The standard deviation of the number of faulty items is:
1mark
Need a hint?
Find the variance np(1−p) first, then take the square root for the standard deviation.
Show worked solution
First the variance: np(1−p)=100×0.2×0.8=16. The standard deviation is the square root, 16=4.
Option C stops at the variance, the single most common slip in exam reports. Option A is the mean np=20. Option D is np, which is not a binomial formula at all.
Q8.A light globe independently lasts the warranty period with probability 0.9. A house fits 4 new globes. The probability that at least one globe fails within the warranty period is:
1mark
Need a hint?
'At least one' is the complement of 'none', so use 1−Pr(X=0) with X∼Bi(4,0.1).
Show worked solution
Let X be the number that fail, so each fails with probability 0.1 and X∼Bi(4,0.1). 'At least one' is the complement of 'none', so Pr(X≥1)=1−Pr(X=0)=1−(0.9)4=0.3439.
Option D is Pr(X=0), the chance that none fail, the answer you get if you forget to subtract from one. Option B is the failure chance for a single globe. Option A wrongly adds the single probabilities, which can even exceed one.
Q9.A fair coin is tossed 5 times. Using the binomial probability formula, find the exact probability of getting exactly 3 heads. Show every step.
3marks
Work this on paper. The worked solution appears once you submit.
Show worked solution
Here n=5, p=21 and k=3, so
Pr(X=3)=(35)(21)3(21)2.
Now (35)=10 and the powers combine to (21)5=321, so
Pr(X=3)=10×321=3210=165.
Frequently asked questions
How do I know when a question is binomial?
Check the four conditions. You need a fixed number of trials decided in advance, each trial having just two outcomes, the same chance of success every trial, and the trials being independent so one result never affects another. If all four hold, it is binomial.
What is the difference between the mean, the variance and the standard deviation?
The mean tells you the count you expect on average. The variance and standard deviation both measure how much the count bounces around that average. The standard deviation is just the square root of the variance, so if a question asks for it, find the variance first and then take the square root.
Why do I multiply by that number in front, the n choose k part?
Because the successes can land in many different orders, and each order is equally likely. The n choose k part counts how many of those orders give you the number of successes you want, so you add one copy of the probability for each arrangement.